Friday, March 18, 2005
17:39
Okay, I haven't made a mathematical post in a while, and I want to explore an idea I just had. The positive integers form a group under multiplication. Call it G. G is infinitely generated, and the most natural basis set for G would be P, the set of prime numbers. Come to think of it, that's the only possible basis set. Any given prime would have to be in it, since a prime can't be written as a product of other integers, and once you've got all the primes, putting any other integer into the set would violate the uniqueness criterion. Okay, so we've got G which is generated by P. Let's consider endomorphisms of G. If f: G -> G is an endomorphism, then f is completely determined by where it sends elements of P. Here's the thought I had earlier: Suppose f(2) = 3, f(3) = 2, f(p) = p for p in P\{2,3}. I thought this might shed some light on the Collatz problem since it deals so much with 2's and 3's. Anyway, let's look at a table:
1 - 1
2 - 3
3 - 2
4 - 9
5 - 5
6 - 6
7 - 7
8 - 27
9 - 4
10 - 15
11 - 11
12 - 18
13 - 13
14 - 21
15 - 10
16 - 81
17 - 17
18 - 12
19 - 19
20 - 45
21 - 14
22 - 33
23 - 23
24 - 54
25 - 25
Okay, I can see one thing already. f(x) = y <=> f(y) = x. So f is its own inverse. Interesting. You could also set up something more complicated, I suppose. Like, put all the primes into pairs and swap them. Okay, I've run out of ideas for the moment. Brainstorm finished.
1 - 1
2 - 3
3 - 2
4 - 9
5 - 5
6 - 6
7 - 7
8 - 27
9 - 4
10 - 15
11 - 11
12 - 18
13 - 13
14 - 21
15 - 10
16 - 81
17 - 17
18 - 12
19 - 19
20 - 45
21 - 14
22 - 33
23 - 23
24 - 54
25 - 25
Okay, I can see one thing already. f(x) = y <=> f(y) = x. So f is its own inverse. Interesting. You could also set up something more complicated, I suppose. Like, put all the primes into pairs and swap them. Okay, I've run out of ideas for the moment. Brainstorm finished.
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couldn't follow that...but here's a way to generate primes:
Let U be an even integer and V be an odd integer.
A = V^2 - U^2
B = 2UV
C = V^2 + U^2
Let U be an even integer and V be an odd integer.
A = V^2 - U^2
B = 2UV
C = V^2 + U^2
Where does the prime come from? A, B, and C are all composite. I wasn't really trying to put that post in layman's terms, but the concept isn't actually very complicated. If you tell me where you got lost I could probably explain.
umm, err, just completely disregard my last post, I had just spent the last three hours running around playing laser tag, I was completely out of it and didn't full comprehend the basic subject of what a prime number was at the time. The equation had nothing to do with primes *very embarrased look*
Well, I see that A, B and C form a Pythagorean triple. But why do U and V have to be even and odd, respectively? A^2 + B^2 = C^2 would be true regardless.
yes, I was talking about pythag. triples instead of primes. I believe the odd/even requirement (this was developed by my grandpa) exists to help keep sequences that have the lowest common divisor = 1.
We've been over this, Chandler. You mean Greatest Common Divisor. The Lowest Common Divisor is always 1. What divisor could be lower?
Yes we have havn't we. I even repeated the whole conversation in my head to make sure I picked the right devisor...I need to make a wall chart. Anyway, I'll stop with this quite off-topic posting now.
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